Saturday, December 27, 2014

CTET-TET PART II Previous Years Solved Question Papers of Mathematics and Science MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

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CTET-TET PART II Previous Years Solved Question Papers of Mathematics and Science MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE



CENTRAL TECHER ELIGIBILITY TEST PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPERS




CTET, CTET SOLVED PAPERS,

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
31. The ratio between the length and the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 1:3. What is the ratio between the length and breadth of the plot?
(1) 1: 2
(2) 2: 1
(3) 3: 2
(4) Data inadequate
Ans: (2)




32. If a * b = a2 + b2 and a . b = a2 - b2 , the value of (5 * 2) . 25 is
(1) 215
(2) 225
(3) 226
(4) 216
Ans: (4)





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33. If a, b and c are three natural numbers in ascending order, then
(1) c2 - a2 > b
(2) c2 - a2 = b2 
(3) c2 - a2 < b2   
(4) c2 + b2 = a2
Ans: (1)


34. 'Buy three, get one free.' What is the percentage of discount being offered here ?

(1) 33.33%     

(2) 25%    

(3) 20%     

(4) 28.56%
Ans: (1)
35. The Value of √2 + √3 + √2 - √3 is
(1) √6
(2) 6
(3) 2√2
(4) 2√3
Ans: (3)
36. When recast, the radius of an iron rod is made one-fourth. If its volume remains constant, then the new length will become

(1) 1/4 times of the original

(2) 1/16 times of the original

(3) 16 times of the original

(4) 4 times of the original
Ans: (3)

37. Find the value of 547527/82 if 547.527/0.0082 = x

(1) x/10

(2) 10 x

(3) 100 x

(4) x/100
Ans: (3)
38. The smallest number by which 68600 must be multiplied to get a perfect cube is

(1) 5

(2) 10

(3) 8

(4) 12
Ans: (1)

39. A cyclist at 'C' is cycling towards 'B'. How far will he have to cycle from C before he is equidistant from both A and B ?





(1) 4 km

(2) 3 km

(3) 6 km

(4) 5 km
Ans: (4)



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40. Unit's digit in 132003 is

(1) 1    

(2) 3    

(3) 7    

(4) 9
Ans: (3)
41. A square sheet ABCD when rotated on its diagonal AC as its axis of rotation sweeps a




(1) cone

(2) spindle

(3) cylinder

(4) trapezium
Ans: (2)




42. The area of a triangle with base x units is equal to the area of a square with side x units. Then the altitude of the triangle is

(1) x/2 units

(2) x units

(3) 2x units

(4) 3x units
Ans: (3)

43. Which is greatest among 33 and half %; 4/15 and 0.35 ?

(1) 33 and half %

(2) 4/15

(3) 0.35

(4) Cannot be compared
Ans: (3)
44. The factorisation of 25 - p2 - q2 - 2pq is

(1) (5 + p + q) (5 - p + q)

(2) (5 + p + q) (5 - P - q)

(3) (5 + p - q) (5 - p + q)

(4) (5 + p - q) (5 - p - q)
Ans: (2)
45. A rectangle is divided horizontally into two equal parts. The upper part is further divided into three equal parts and the lower part is divided into four equal parts.Which fraction of the original rectangle the shaded part ?



(1) 3/5

(2) 2/7

(3) 4/7

(4) 7/12
Ans: (4)

46. In the given figure, PS = SQ = SR and  L SPQ = 54°. Find the measure of  L x.




(1) 54°

(2) 72°

(3) 108°

(4) 36°
Ans: (1)
47. 2x - 13, 2x - 11, 2x - 9, 2x - 7 are consecutive

(1) Prime numbers

(2) Even numbers

(3) Odd numbers

(4) Natural numbers
Ans: (3)

48. The fractional equivalent of 57.12% (approx.) is

(1) 349/625

(2) 359/625

(3) 357/625

(4) 347/625
Ans: (3)

49. The ratio of the side and height of an equilateral triangle is

(1) 2 : 1

(2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : √3

(4) √3 : 2
Ans: (3)

50. If two adjacent sides of a square paper are decreased by 20% and 40% respectively, by what percentage does the new area decrease?

(1) 48%

(2) 50%

(3) 52%

(4) 60%
Ans:
51. 4/16 - 1/8 = 3/8

6/7 - 2/9 = 4/2

The above represents the work of a student. If this error pattern continues, the student's answer to 5/11 - 2/7 will be

(1) 7/18

(2) 3/4

(3) 3/7

(4) 2/18
Ans: (2)
52. A teacher in grade-VI provided each child with a centimeter grid paper and a pair of scissors. She wanted them to explore how two-dimensional shapes can be folded into three-dimensional objects. Which of the following concepts are the students exploring?

(1) Rotation

(2) Reflection

(3) Nets

(4) Decimals
Ans:
53. When doing exponents, the work observed in a learner's notebook was as follows :

43 x 42 = 45

64 x 64 = 68

73 x 37 = 2110

The learner has not understood how to

(1) add exponents

(2) add exponents and multiply

(3) multiply numbers with same base

(4) multiply numbers with different bases
Ans: (4)

54. Teachers, while discussing problem-solving as an approach to teaching of mathematics, articulated four views. Which of the following views doesnot justify the real meaning of this approach?

(1) 'I think questions on problem-solving should be made from situations based on real life.'

(2) 'I think many questions found in the mathematics textbook can be used for problem-solving.'

(3) 'I think it is better to connect problem-solving with general mathematics class.' 

(4) 'I think there is no correlation between problem-solving and mathematical reasoning.'
Ans:

55. Given linear equations I, II and III, a learner is not able to solve III algebraically. The most likely area of difficulty is that the learner has not understood

           
               

(1) that two equations can be added or subtracted to solve them

(2) that two equations can be solved by method of substitution

(3) the method of solving equations using graphs

(4) that both the equations in III can be altered by multiplying with suitable numbers
Ans: (2)

56.When introducing mensuration, a teacher writes all the formulae on the board before proceeding further. This reflects that she is following the

(1) Inductive approach

(2) Deductive approach

(3) Experimental approach

(4) Practical approach
Ans: (2)
57. Ameena is playing with matchsticks and adds one  at each stage :  Appu, on the other hand, makes a table: 
Number of L's123...
Number of matchsticks246..


What is your observation about the two children in this situation?

(1) Ameena is only playing and Appu is doing mathematics

(2) Ameena will need lots of matchsticks to come to a generalisation. However, Appu would be faster

(3) Both Ameena and Appu are trying to make generalisations

(4) Ameena would be learning by doing and Appu may not be able to see the pattern at all
Ans: (1)

58. To be good in mathematics, one needs to

(1) remember solutions

(2) have mastery over calculations

(3)  create and formulate problems through abstract thinking and logical reasoning

(4) memorise formulae
Ans: (3)

59. Students make errors while solving mathematical problems because 

(1) they do not practise enough

(2) they do not refer to multiple textbooks

(3) their socio-economic status affects their performance

(4) they make alternative interpretations of concepts in their attempt to make meaning
Ans: (4)    

60. With an activity on paper folding, a teacher was trying to depict the relationship of the areas of a parallelogram and a triangle. Which of the following best depicts the transformation of stages?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans: (4)
61. Bakelite is used in making electrical appliances because it is a

(1) thermoplastic

(2) good conductor of heat

(3) good conductor of electricity

(4) good insulator of electricity
Ans: (4)

62. In which of the following cases of motion, are the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement equal ?

(1) A car moving on a straight road

(2) A car moving in a circular path

(3) A pendulum oscillating to and fro

(4) The Earth revolving around the Sun
Ans: (1)

63. LED and CFL are very commonly used as sources of light in homes. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) CFL is better because LED contains toxic materials

(2) LED is better because CFL contains toxic materials

(3) Both are equally good

(4) Neither of them is good because both contain toxic materials
Ans: (2)

64. An air bubble inside water behaves like a

(1) concave lens    

(2) convex lens

(3) plano-convex lens

(4) concave mirror
Ans: (1)

65. A feather weighing 5 gm and a nail weighing 10 gm have the same kinetic energy. Which of the following statements is true about the momentum of the two bodies ?     

(1) The lighter body will have higher momentum

(2) The heavier body will have higher momentum

(3) Both will have equal momentum

(4) It is not possible to compare the momentum. of two objects
Ans: (2)
66. If the pressure over a liquid increases, its boiling point

(1) decreases

(2) Increases

(3) does not change

(4) first decreases and then increases
Ans: (2)

67. A doctor prescribes a medicine to treat hyperacidity. The main ingredient of the medicine is 

(1) Al(OH)3

(2) MgCl2

(3) CaC03

(4) Na2C03
Ans: (1)

68. Non-metallic oxides

(1) are acidic in nature

(2) are basic in nature

(3) are amphoteric in nature

(4) turn red litmus paper blue
Ans: (1)

69. The inner surfaces of food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because

(1) zinc is costlier than tin

(2) zinc is more reactive than tin

(3) zinc has a higher melting point than tin

(4) zinc is less reactive than tin
Ans: (2)

70. A man goes door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promises to bring back the glitter on dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting woman gives a set of gold bangles to him which he dips in a particular solution. The bangles sparkle but their weight has considerably reduced. The solution used by the impostor probably is

(1) dil. HCI

(2) cone. HCI

(3) a mixture of cone. HCI and cone. HN03

(4) cone. HN03
Ans: (3)
71. Bleeding is stopped by the application of alum to a wound because

(1) the wound is plugged by the alum chunk

(2) alum coagulates the blood and forms a clot

(3) alum reduces the temperature near the wound

(4) alum is an antiseptic
Ans: (2)

72. When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, the colour of copper sulphate solution fades and a brownish layer is deposited over the iron nail. This is an example of 

(1) combination reaction 

(2) decomposition reaction 

(3) double displacement reaction 

(4) displacement and redox reactions
Ans: (4)

73. While diluting sulphuric acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water because 

(1) acid has strong affinity for water 

(2) acid may break the glass container 

(3) dilution of acid is highly exothermic 

(4) dilution of acid is highly endothermic
Ans: (3)

74. The thumb of humans moves more freely than other fingers due to the presence of 

(1) pivotal joint 

(2) gliding joint 

(3) hinge joint 

(4) saddle joint
Ans: (4)

75. Root cap is absent in 

(1) Xerophytes 

(2) Hydrophytes 

(3) Mesophytes 

(4) Halophytes
Ans: (2)

76. Adding salt and sugar to food substances helps In preserving them for a longer duration. It is because excess salt and sugar 

(1) plasmolyse the microbial cells 

(2) cause rupturing of microbial cells 

(3) cause change in the shape of microbial cells 

(4) remove water from food
Ans: (1)

77. Hormone Adrenaline 

(1) helps control level of sugar in the blood 

(2) helps the body to adjust stress level when one is very angry or worried 

(3) helps control height 

(4) helps control balance of electrolytes in the body
Ans: (2)

78. The green house effect which is causing an increase in the atmospheric temperature is mainly due to 

(1) oxygen 

(2) nitrogen 

(3) carbon dioxide 

(4) sulphur
Ans: (3)

79. Green plants appear to release oxygen instead of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during the day time because 

(1) green plants do not respire during the night time 

(2) green plants respire only during the night time 

(3) green plants respire during the day time but are involved in photosynthesis during the night time 

(4) the rate of photosynthesis is higher than the rate of respiration during the day time
Ans: (4)

80. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve-tube cells and mammalian erythrocytes is 

(1) absence of nucleus 

(2) absence of chloroplast 

(3) absence of cell wall 

(4) presence of haemoglobin
Ans: (1)
81. Most Boards of Education have banned the dissection of animals because 

(1) animals are no longer available for dissection 

(2) procuring animals has become an expensive proposition 

(3) there is a need to sensitise students to prevention of cruelty to animals 

(4) they may spread new diseases
Ans: (3)
 
82. The main aim of conducting Mathematics and Science Olympiads is to 

(1) promote excellence in the subject by nurturing creativity and experimentation 

(2) grade students according to their capabilities 

(3) help students score high marks in professional examinations 

(4) grade schools based on the performance of their students
Ans: (1)

83. Four applicants for a post of TGT (Science) were asked to plan a lesson on "Consequences of Deforestation", Which one of the following lesson plans reflects the scientific approach ? 

(1) Explains in detail the consequences of deforestation 

(2) Provides a variety of examples to explain the concept 

(3) Includes activities that children can perform in groups and draw conclusions through a Power Point presentation 

(4) Mentions about the use of ICT to help students understand the concept
Ans: (3)

84. Ms. Patel, Principal of a School XYZ, is keen about integrated approach to teaching of Science rather than teaching different disciplines separately. The basis of this is 

(1) non-availability of qualified teachers in her school to teach separate disciplines 

(2) difficulty to adjust the teachers in the time-table 

(3) difficulty of students to adjust to different teachers 

(4) all the disciplines are interlinked and a teacher can draw on cross-curricular linkages
Ans: (4)

85. A teacher plans to teach "Components of Food" in Class-VI. Which of the following can be used as an essential question ? 

(1) List the food items your mother serves you in lunch. 

(2) Why does your mother serve you a meal with a variety of food items ? 

(3) Does your mother prepare a definite set of food items for lunch every day? 

(4) Do you eat all the items served in your lunch every day?
Ans: (2)

86. While teaching the concept, "force can change the shape of an object" to students, a teacher plans the following activities: 

a. Explain concepts using commonly observed examples. 

b. Provide a dough on a plate and ask the students to press it down with the hand. 

c. Show an audio-visual• film explaining the concept with some examples. 

The teacher is using different approaches to learning because 

(1) she wants to prove her knowledge 

(2) she knows she must follow her lesson plan 

(3) she wants to prepare students for a test 

(4) there are different kinds of learners in the class and she wants to address multiple intelligences
Ans: 

87. Which of the following can be assessed when Geeta is using only MCQ as a tool to assess "Nutrition in Humans" ? 

(1) Analytical ability to classify food items and make a poster 

(2) Misconceptions related to food habits 

(3) Learners' ability to apply knowledge and prepare a role play to present in the morning assembly 

(4) Learners' ability to comprehend the importance of components of food and write a long essay
Ans: (2)

88. A Science teacher plans group activities to teach "Properties of Air" to her students of Class-VI. Which one set of attributes would she like to have in the students she selects as group leaders ? 

(1) Freedom to choose roles, work at their own pace and understanding 

(2) Ordering students to take roles and deliver in consonance with their understanding 

(3) Giving major roles to brighter students to ensure the group finishes first 

(4) Assigning roles as per capability, motivating and coordinating among the group members
Ans: (4)

89. While selecting a performance task to help students develop research oriented skills in a Science class, a teacher may pick up a topic 

(1) from the content given in the syllabus which must be completed in time 

(2) which majority of the students in a class find interesting 

(3) which she thinks is important for the students 

(4) related to a problem faced by students in their day-to-day functioning and which is a part of the concepts to be covered for this class
Ans: (4)

90. While investigating 'how water affects the germination of seeds', a teacher asked the students to soak bean seeds on a bed of cotton wool for a few days and observe the changes. What is the guideline that she forgot to mention? 
To place 

(1) many seeds on wet cotton 

(2) a few seeds on wet cotton 

(3) many seeds on dry cotton 

(4) a few seeds on dry cotton
Ans: (2)







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CTET PART I Child Development And Pedagogy Previous Years Solved Question Papers

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CTET PART I Child Development And Pedagogy Previous Years Solved Question Papers

CENTRAL TECHER ELIGIBILITY TEST PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPERS



CTET SOLVED PAPER
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. A creative learner refers to one who is

(1) very talented in drawing and painting

(2) highly intelligent

(3) capable of scoring consistently good marks in tests

(4) good at lateral thinking and problem solving

Ans: (4)



2. Individual learners differ from each other in

(1) principles of growth and development

(2) rate of development

(3) sequence of development

(4) general capacity for development

Ans: (2)



 3. Every learner is unique means that

(1) No two learners are alike in their abilities, interests and talents

(2) Learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals

(3) A common curriculum for all learners is not possible

(4) It is impossible to develop the potential of learners in a heterogeneous class
Ans: (1)


4. Constructivism as a theory

(1) focuses on the role of imitation

(2) emphasises the role of the learner in constructing his own view of the world

(3) emphasises on memorising information and testing through recall

(4) emphasises on the dominant role of the teacher
Ans: (2)



5. Development of concepts is primarily a part of

(1) emotional development

(2) intellectual development

(3) physical development

(4) social development
Ans: (2)


6. Heredity is considered as a social structure.

(1) primary

(2) secondary

(3) dynamic

(4) static
Ans: (4)


7. The most intense and crucial socialization takes place

(1) throughout the life of a person

(2) during adolescence

(3) during early childhood

(4) during adulthood
Ans: (2)


8. Helping learners recapitulate or recall what they have already learnt is important because

(1) it is a convenient beginning for any classroom instruction

(2) relating new information to prior knowledge enhances learning

(3) it is an effective way of revising old lessons

(4) it enhances the memory of learners thereby strengthening learning
Ans: (2)



9. According to Piaget, during the first stage of development (birth to about 2 years age), a child learns best

(1) by using the senses

(2) by comprehending neutral words

(3) by thinking in an abstract fashion

(4) by applying newly acquired knowledge of language
Ans: (1)


10. Theory of learning which totally and only depends on 'observable behaviour' is associated with theory of learning.

(1) Cognitivist

(2) Developmental

(3) Behaviourist

(4) Constructivist
Ans: (3)


11. Multilingual character of Indian society should be seen as

(1) a hindrance in teaching-learning process

(2) a resource for enrichment of school life

(3) a challenge to teacher's capacity to motivate students to learn

(4) a factor that makes school life a complex experience for the learners
Ans: (2)



 12. Creative answers require

(1) direct teaching and direct questions

(2) content-based questions

(3) open-ended questions

(4) a highly disciplined classroom
Ans: (3)


13. Diagnosis of the gaps In the learning of students should be followed by

(1) appropriate remedial measures

(2) intensive drill and practice.

(3) systematic revision of all lessons

(4) reporting the findings to learners and parents
Ans: (1)




14. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of 'learning' ?

(1) Learning is a process that mediates behaviour

(2) Learning is something that occurs as a result of certain experiences

(3) Study of behaviour is learning

(4) Unlearning is also a part of learning
Ans: (3)


15. 'Self-regulation' of learners refers to

(1) their ability to monitor their own learning

(2) creating regulations for student behaviour

(3) rules and regulations made by the student body

(4) self-discipline and control
Ans: (1)


16. Which of the following does not reflect 'teaching for understanding' ?

(1) Ask students to explain a phenomenon or a concept in their own words

(2) Teach students to provide examples to illustrate how a law works

(3) Help students see similarities and differences and generate analogies

(4) Enable students to memorize isolated facts and procedures
Ans: (4)


17. Which of the following statements is true about 'learning' ?

(1) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place.

(2) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for the learners.

(3) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at any stage of learning.

(4) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity.
Ans: (2)


18. Human development is based on certain principles. Which of the following is not a principle of human development?

(1) Continuity

(2) Sequentiality

(3) General to Specific

(4) Reversible
Ans: (4)


19. The main purpose of assessment should be

(1) to point out the errors of the learners

(2) to measure the achievement of learners

(3) to decide if a student should be promoted to the next class

(4) to diagnose and remedy gaps in learning
Ans: (4)


20. Centrally sponsored scheme of Integrated Education for disabled children aims at providing educational opportunities to children with disabilities in

(1) regular schools

(2) special schools

(3) open schools

(4) Blind Relief Association schools
Ans: (1)


21. Which of the following is not a sign of reading difficulty among young learners? Difficulty in

(1) letter and word recognition

(2) reading speed and fluency

(3) understanding words and ideas

(4) spelling consistency
Ans: (3)


22. A teacher wants the gifted children of her 'class to achieve their potential. Which of the following should she not do to achieve her objective?

(1) Teach them to enjoy non-academic activities

(2) Teach them to manage stress

(3) Segregate them from their peers for special attention

(4) Challenge them to enhance their creativity
Ans: (3)


23. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of intrinsically motivated children?

(1) They always succeed

(2) They enjoy doing their work

(3) They display a high level of energy while working

(4) They like challenging tasks
Ans: (1)


24. Which of the following is not an appropriate tool for Formative Assessment?

(1) Assignment

(2) Oral questions

(3) Term test

(4) Quiz and games
Ans: (3)


25. Learners should not be encouraged to

(1) ask as many questions as possible both inside and outside the class

(2) actively interact with other learners in group work

(3) participate in as many co-curricular activities as possible

(4) memorize all the answers to questions which the teacher may ask
Ans: (4)


26. Irfan breaks toys and dismantles them to explore their components. What would you do?

(1) Never let Irfan play with toys

(2) Always keep a close watch

(3) Encourage his inquisitive nature and channelise his energy

(4) Make him understand that toys should not be broken
Ans: (3)


27. The statement 'Men are generally more intelligent than women'

(1) is true

(2) may be true

(3) shows gender bias

(4) is true for different domains of intelligence
Ans: (3)


28. Understanding the principles of development of a child helps a teacher in

(1) identifying the social status of the learner

(2) identifying the economic background of the learner

(3) rationalizing why the learner ought to be taught

(4) effectively catering to the different learning styles of learners
Ans: (4)


29. Christina took her class for a field trip and after coming back, she discussed the trip with her students. It may be connotated as

(1) Assessment of Learning

(2) Assessment for Learning

(3) Learning for Assessment

(4) Learning of Assessment
Ans: (1)


30. The statement: 'An important precondition for the proper development of a child is ensuring her/his healthy physical development'

(1) is untrue as physical development does not affect other domains of development in anyway

(2) may be incorrect as development varies from individual to individual

(3) is true because physical development occupies the topmost place In the sequence of development

(4) is true because physical development is interrelated with other domains of development
Ans: (4)

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).




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पद का नाम
कांस्टेबल(आर्म्ड ब्रांच)




Assam State issued District Wise Police Constable Recruitment. So candidates need to Apply Online District Wise and Download Notification as well as. Now we given list of district of Assam & full list of Post given bellow -
Dhubri, Gopalpara, Bongaigaon, Barpeta, Nalbari, Darrang, Sonitpur, Kamrup, Morigaon, Nagaon, Karbi, Hamren, Tinsukia, Dibrugarh, Cachar, Karimganj, Hailakandi, Chirang, Kokrajhar, Lakhimpur, Golaghat, Udalguri, Dhemaji, Jorhat, Baksa, Sivasagar.
Eligibility Criteria – All candidates those looking to apply for Assam Police Constable Recruitment those must be 18 to 25 years only as per 1st January 2014. First all of candidates must be Nationality depend on it. Candidates must be Indian citizens.
Age Relaxation – Is depend on Category wise like SC, ST candidates must be relax 5 year and other category will be 3 years age relaxation as per government rule of Assam State Police Recruitment Board.
Education Qualification Details – All candidate must be qualified in 12th Class & HSC in any school or Colleges of India.
Physical Standard Official website issued Physical Standard on official; notification so candidates must be check first Physical Standard also before apply online

Selection of candidates must be depend on Physical Standard PST & Physical Efficiency Test PET. All candidates Male / Female candidates selected on the based Physical Standard. First all of candidates need to qualified in Race. At last written exam held on selected candidates. Written exam carry 25 marks and candidates must be passed in written exam to get Constable recruitment.
Extra curriculum activity must be 15 marks
  • Education Qualification – 5 marks
  • NCC/ Home Guard – 5 marks
  • Diploma/ ITI – 5 marks
Final Result based on marks on following -
  • PET – maximum marks 60
  • Multiple choice / Objective Test written test – 25 marks
  • Extra curicullam 15 marks
 Total Number of Assam Male ? Female Police Constable exam is – 100 marks
Important Date - 
  • Starting Date – Candidates Apply Online on 26th December 2014
  • Last Date – 25th January 2015
  • Notice issued on 24th December 2014 on official website
How to Apply Online Assam Police 6748 Post 2015 Application Form
  • First all of candidates need to search official website – http://assampolice.gov.in/
  • Then candidate to go home page & find link provided to you.
  • Click on ot and ion e in new tab. Now pdf file format of application form and Notification open in your screen.
  • You need to read carefully and then apply online / offline mode.
  • You must be filly application form carefully and correct details about candidates. Then attached required details with application form.
  • Now you must get print  out and save in your computer.
  • Last click on final submit and apply online for Assam Police Constable Recruitment 2014 – 2015
Now we suggested  to all candidates in case you do not find link or apply online just go to comment section and written on it. We tried to reply soon as possible. Further details related to Post and other information like Recruitment, Last Date Apply Online, How to Download Admit Card and Application Form, Notification available on-

योग्यता: 12वीं पास

उम्र सीमा:
18-25 सालनिकली है. इच्छुक उम्मीदवार 25 जनवरी तक आवेदन कर सकते हैं.

पद का नाम
कांस्टेबल(आर्म्ड ब्रांच)

योग्यता: 12वीं पास

उम्र सीमा:
18-25 साल

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असम राइफल्स में 10वीं पास पाएं नौकरी



असम राइफल्स में विभिन्न रिक्त पदों को भरने के लिए विज्ञप्ति जारी की गई है। इन पदों पर भर्ती हेतु भारतीय नागरिकों से आवेदन पत्र मंगाए गए हैं। इन पदों में राइफलमैन (जनरल ड्यूटी) के पद शामिल हैं।

कुल पद

पदों की कुल संख्या 64 निर्धारित की गई है।

शैक्षिक योग्यता

इन पदों को भरने की शैक्षिक योग्यता 10वीं पास या समकक्ष रखी गयी है।

आयु सीमा

विज्ञापित पदों के लिए आयु सीमा 18 से 23 वर्ष निर्धारित की गई है। आयु की गणना 1 जनवरी, 2015 से की जाएगी। आरक्षित वर्ग को अधिकतम आयु में नियमानुसार छूट प्रदान की गई है।

शारीरिक योग्यता

विज्ञापित पदों के लिए आवेदकों की लंबाई 170 सेमी. व सीने की चौड़ाई (बिना फुलाव के) 80 सेमी. निर्धारित की गई है। आवेदकों को शारीरिक रूप से स्वस्थ्य होना अनिवार्य है। राइफलमैन के पदों के लिए होने वाली परीक्षा के लिए शारीरिक रूप से अक्षम व्यक्ति योग्य नहीं है |

आवेदन

आवेदन पत्र को अभ्यर्थी केवल ऑफलाइन तरीके से भर सकते है। किसी अन्य माध्यम से किए गए आवेदन पत्र को स्वीकार नहीं किया जाएगा। आवेदन हेतु आवेदन फॉर्म संबंधित वेबसाइट पर उपलब्ध है। पूर्णरूप से भरे हुए आवेदन पत्र को संबंधित दस्तावेजों के साथ दिए गए पते ‘हेडक्वार्टर्स डाइरेक्टोरेट जनरल असम राइफल्स (भर्ती शाखा), लैतकोर, शिलांग मेघालय-793010′ पर भेजें।

चयन

इन पदों पर आवेदन करने वाले योग्य उम्मीदवारों का चयन शारीरिक दक्षता परीक्षा, लिखित परीक्षा और साक्षात्कार के माध्यम से किया जाएगा। चयनित अभ्यर्थियों को चिकित्सीय परीक्षा भी उत्तीर्ण करनी होगी। आवेदकों का चयन मेरिट के अनुसार किया जाएगा। आवेदन हेतु आवेदन फॉर्म संबंधित वेबसाइट पर उपलब्ध है।

पूर्णरूप से भरे हुए आवेदन पत्र को संबंधित दस्तावेजों के साथ दिए गए पते ‘हेडक्वार्टर्स डाइरेक्टोरेट जनरल असम राइफल्स (भर्ती शाखा), लैतकोर, शिलांग मेघालय-793010′ पर भेजें।

अंतिम तिथि

आवेदन करने की अंतिम तिथि 30 जनवरी, 2015 है। आवेदन पत्र तथा अन्य आवश्यक जानकारी व निर्देश के लिए उम्मीदवार http://www.assamrifles.gov.in/ पर लॉग ऑन करें।



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Friday, December 26, 2014

FLIPKART'S NICE OFFER ON WOMEN'S CLOTHING, MRP RS 1495, FLIPKART PRICE - RSN 747 (50% DISCOUNT)

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FLIPKART'S NICE OFFER ON WOMEN'S CLOTHING, MRP RS 1495, FLIPKART PRICE - RSN 747 (50% DISCOUNT)

IF YOU DON'T LIKE PRODUCT THEN RETURN BACK GURANTEE WITHIN 30 DAYS.

YOU CAN PAY THROUGH CASH ON DELIVERY - MEANS WHEN YOU RECEIVE PRODUCT THEN YOU CAN PAY CASH AMOUNT.










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Thursday, December 25, 2014

RTE ACT / NCTE GUIDELINES FOR TET TEACHERS

TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST - TET - NCTE - RTE-GUIDELINES

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TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST - TET - NCTE - RTE-GUIDELINES

Q. WHAT IS TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST ( TET EXAM) EXAM? WHY IT IS IMPORTANT TO BECOME TEACHER?

ANS : TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST ( TET EXAM) EXAM PASS QUALIFICATION IS MANDATORY TO BECOME TEACHER AS PER NCTE GUIDELINES / RTE ACT.

CENTRAL  GOVERNMENT PASSED RTE ACT ON 23RD AUGUST 2010 IN ITS GAZETTE NOTIFICATION ( BHARAT KA RAJPATRA).

NCTE HAS POWER TO FRAME RULES FOR TET EXAM TO MAINTAIN QUALITY IN EDUCATION SYSTEM-
In accordance with the provisions of sub - section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII , vide its Notification dated August 23, 2010

See RTE Act - http://www.ncte-india.org/Norms/RTE-1.pdf

 Q. What should be qualification to become teacher under RTE Act for class 1 to 8.
Ans: Minimum qualification is as per academic authority ( currently NCTE) authorized by central government of India by notification.
NCTE prescribed compulsory TET pass qualification to become teacher under RTE.

Central Government can give relaxation in qualification to state government under following conditions :-
Where a State does not have adequate institutions offering course or training in teacher education, or teachers possessing minimum qualifications as laid down under sub-section (1) are not available in sufficient numbers, the Central Government may, if it deems necessary, by notification, relax the minimum qualifications required for appointment as a teacher, for such period, not exceeding five years, as may be specified in that notification :
Provided that a teacher who, at the commencement of this Act, does not possess minimum qualifications as laid down under sub-section (1), shall acquire such minimum qualification within a period of five years.

(Example: In UP, UPTET pass candidates are in sufficient large numbers approx 3 Lakh, And this causes problem for Shiksha Mitra to beocme Teacher under RTE act)



Q. Is there any specific guidelines/ rule for selected teacher under RTE Act?
Ans: Teacher under RTE Act shall perform duties for educational purpose only. However they can be engaged in collecting population census data related matters, disaster relief duties and election duties.

Q. Can teacher under RTE Act perform private tution . private teaching activity.
Ans : RTE Act clearly denies  for Private tuition/ private teaching activity.


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Q.What is RTE Act?
Ans : RTE ( Right to Education) Act OR  Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, is Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21-A, means that every child has a right to full time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.

 Article 21-A and the RTE Act came into effect on 1 April 2010. The title of the RTE Act incorporates the words ‘free and compulsory’. ‘Free education’ means that no child, other than a child who has been admitted by his or her parents to a school which is not supported by the appropriate Government, shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education. ‘Compulsory education’ casts an obligation on the appropriate Government and local authorities to provide and ensure admission, attendance and completion of elementary education by all children in the 6-14 age group. With this, India has moved forward to a rights based framework that casts a legal obligation on the Central and State Governments to implement this fundamental child right as enshrined in the Article 21A of the Constitution, in accordance with the provisions of the RTE Act.

The RTE Act provides for the:
  • Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school.
  • It clarifies that ‘compulsory education’ means obligation of the appropriate government to provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission, attendance and completion of elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen age group. ‘Free’ means that no child shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education.
  • It makes provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class.
  • It specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local authority and parents in providing free and compulsory education, and sharing of financial and other responsibilities between the Central and State Governments.
  • It lays down the norms and standards relating inter alia to Pupil Teacher Ratios (PTRs), buildings and infrastructure, school-working days, teacher-working hours.
  • It provides for rational deployment of teachers by ensuring that the specified pupil teacher ratio is maintained for each school, rather than just as an average for the State or District or Block, thus ensuring that there is no urban-rural imbalance in teacher postings. It also provides for prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational work, other than decennial census, elections to local authority, state legislatures and parliament, and disaster relief.
  • It provides for appointment of appropriately trained teachers, i.e. teachers with the requisite entry and academic qualifications.
  • It prohibits (a) physical punishment and mental harassment; (b) screening procedures for admission of children; (c) capitation fee; (d) private tuition by teachers and (e) running of schools without recognition,
  • It provides for development of curriculum in consonance with the values enshrined in the Constitution, and which would ensure the all-round development of the child, building on the child’s knowledge, potentiality and talent and making the child free of fear, trauma and anxiety through a system of child friendly and child centred learning.



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